my response to the definition of silence is the same as the response to the definition of preach. I don’t know. And I don’t think a typical concordance would anser that either. As we see, you have stated what you think it means but I doubt that is in the concordance.
But going on the general definition of silence as we all know, I would say that Paul menat what he said. If he had meant not disrupt he probably would have said that. so again, the question is do we take Paul’s words to apply today? And did God inspire Paul’s word’s? And is the translation of Paul’s words accurate? You know, they decided to leave out several writings when the Bible was put together. Did they leave anything else out or change or misinterpret anything? What I am saying is that it is not as simple as looking in a concordance.